Originally posted by SST:
I'm not familiar with Multitech. Maybe they sense voltage and the port changes gender like someone from Hollywood. But the original design was FXO= dial tone in and FXS= dial tone out.
On the Vonage issue, both customer ends would be FXS. But both circuits terminate in a Vonage switching office. I've never been in a Vonage CO and can only make an educated guess on their network topology.
Maybe Vonage is not FXS-to-FXS after all but maybe on Vonage switching office, it goes to the FXO before it goes to the other customer's FXS device.
Originally posted by SST:
If you add a second OPX circuit to the above example, say ext. 108, in Seattle. Both locations would be FXS in Seattle and Pittsburg. So, the guy in Pittsburg picks up his extension (107) and dials 108. Doing this, he calls the guy in Seattle. They are both FXS on their ends but they are actually being switched trough the LA PBX. Remember, PBX is a private branch exchange as apposed to a public Telco’s much larger branch exchange.
1. Is the PBX doing the switching or the VOIP FXO/FXS Networking device SPA-3000 is doing the switching 2 remote extensions?
2. The LA office PBX system is linked to the VOIP network from the FXO port? Since the FXO is dial tone in, you must provide dial tone with your PBX system right?
3. Does your LA office need 2 FXO ports to support 2 OPX? One FXO port for extension 107 in Pittsburg and another FXO port for extension 108 in Seattle?
4. So the entire concept is that in your Main LA office, you replace an analog phone plugged into your PBX with another FXO device called a SPA-3000.
The FXO port on the SPA-3000 will teleport (via internet) all calls both in and out from that extension to another FXS device on the internet.
Thanks.